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Billy Quinlan

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Samuel vs Chronicles in the Narrative of Inciting David to Sin

Video: “13 More Bible Contradictions” by Holy Koolaid
The texts in question are 2 Samuel 24:1 and 1 Chronicles 21:1

Below are Mr. Koolaid’s statements (in bold) followed by my response.

But here’s a bigger biblical whoopsie in both 2 Samuel [24] and 1 Chronicles [21] King David, the same David of David and Goliath fame, has his commander Joab take a census of Israel’s fighting men, which enrages God. Why God hates censuses so much is a little unclear.”

I don’t know why Mr. Koolaid thinks God hates censuses. I can only speculate he probably hasn’t really read the Bible. Exodus 30:11-16 permitted censuses to be taken but warned that a ransom be given to the LORD so that there will be no plague among the people (verse 12). The money was to be used for the service of the tent of meeting, also known as the tabernacle (verse 16). Several times the LORD permitted censuses (Numbers 1:2; 4:2; 4:22; 26:2). So no, God does not hate censuses—as long as they are carried out properly.

What enraged God was not so much the taking of the census. Perhaps a second reading of the first part 2 Samuel 24:1 might refresh your memory, “Now the anger of the LORD burned against Israel…” What Israel did to deserve God’s anger isn’t specified but the verse makes it clear who God was angry with, and that is Israel, not David.

So then, you might be wondering why would David’s own action is considered sin, even if God permitted censuses to be held.
1) First, because he had the wrong motives. (It doesn’t matter where the temptation came from, he was still held accountable for his disobedience.) Joab’s protest shows that David was only interested in his military might and not resting on God’s promise of protection (2 Samuel 24:3-4 and 1 Chronicles 21:3-4.). David ignored this warning and persuaded Joab to conduct the census.
2) Second, because David failed to require Joab to collect the half-shekel ransom to be paid by each of the men counted in the census (Exodus 30:12-13).

Because of the census God gives David several punishments to choose from: 1) three years of famine; 2) three months fleeing from his enemies; 3) or three days or plague. In both accounts, David chooses plague and seventy thousand people die.”

As the verses from both books show, David did not choose a punishment but rather chose to cast himself on the mercy of God. He did request that he not “fall into the hand of man” but he made no actual choice. As the scripture says, “Then David said to Gad, ‘I am in great distress. Let us now fall into the hand of the LORD for His mercies are great, but do not let me fall into the hand of man’” (2 Samuel 24:14); and also, “David said to Gad, ‘I am in great distress; please let me fall into the hand of the LORD, for His mercies are very great. But do not let me fall into the hand of man’” (1 Chronicles 21:13). Those that think David made a choice are reading it into the text (eisegesis) rather than simply letting the text speak for itself (exegesis).

David builds an altar on the threshing floor of Araunah the Jebusite, sacrifices some oxen and God lifts the curse.”

It may or may not be true that David sacrificed oxen, but it shows that Mr. Koolaid didn’t pay attention to the texts. Araunah did offer his oxen, among other things, to David (2 Samuel 24:22-32 and 1 Chronicles 21:23), and David bought the land and the things offered by Araunah. However, both accounts do not specifically say what David offered up to God except to say that he performed two types of sacrifices, burnt offerings and peace offerings (2 Samuel 24:25 and 1 Chronicles 21:26). Again, always be careful not to add to the text things that aren’t there.

In 1 Chronicles [21:1], Satan is the one who incited David to take the census but in 2 Samuel [24:1] but instead of Satan it’s God who incited David to take the census. Yikes! Even the Bible can’t tell God’s actions apart from the devil’s.”

So then, which one is true? Both of them.

God is sovereign. He uses all things, both good and evil to accomplish His goals expressly for the good of those of us that are saved (Romans 8:28). One such example is when Satan entered into Judas (Luke 22:3-4, John 13:27) to betray Jesus to the Temple authorities so they could arrest Him. The result was that Jesus was nailed to the cross for the forgiveness of sins. There would be no salvation otherwise.

God also uses evil to tempt us so that we can learn from it. The object is to drive us back to God for His protection from sin. One example of this is when Satan tempted Eve in the Garden of Eden (Genesis 3:4-5), although Eve failed when tempted. An even better example of this is when Jesus was in the wilderness being tempted by Satan to bypass the cross (Matthew 4:1–11; Mark 1:12–13; Luke 4:1–13). Jesus relied on God’s Word to resist temptation to disobey Gods’ will.

God also uses evil to test us. Not for His sake, but for ours, to increase our faith in Him and/or to teach us our weaknesses so that we can become willing to rest upon His power and not ours to live according to His will. This is clearly shown in the book of Job where Satan attacked Job to try to prove to God that Job would turn his back on Him if all he had was taken away (Job 1:6-12 and 2:1-6). The result was that because Job held on to his faith in God, he was rewarded with more possessions and children than he lost.

With that in mind, when you put the two together, 2 Samuel 24:1 and 1 Chronicles 21:1, God used Satan to incite David to take the census. God never tempts anyone to sin (James 1:13), so God allowed Satan to tempt David to take the census. Satan was the active mover and the tempter who prevailed against the king. There is nothing in this universe that can occur that God cannot ultimately use for good.

So then, you’re probably wondering what good comes out of this.
1) The punishment eventually resulted in the building of the Temple on Mt. Moriah in Jerusalem, the very place where the plague came to an end. This gave Israel a permanent location to worship God and to carry out their sacrifices.
2) We learn that God is serious about obedience to His commandments and that He doesn’t wink at sin. We can learn from this example, both individually and nationally, that to turn our back on God and disobey His will can, and often does, result in serious repercussions (Romans 15:4).

Billy Quinlan

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The Question of Preparing Jesus’ Body for Burial

Video: “13 More Bible Contradictions” by Holy Koolaid
The texts in question are John 19:39, Mark 16:1-3, and Luke 23:55-56

Below are Mr. Koolaid’s statements (in bold) followed by my response.

Like, who spiced up Jesus’ body?”

Ignored in Mr. Koolaid’s narrative are the larger contexts laid out in Matthew 27:57-61 and 28:1-7; Mark 15:42-16:3; Luke 23:50-24:3; and John 19:38-42. You should see that those texts can help you to fill in the gaps that Mr. Koolaid left out, as well as how he played fast and loose with the texts.

According to John, a rich guy named Nicodemus buried Jesus in seventy pounds of spices the night of His death.”

I honestly can’t tell if Mr. Koolaid is only repeating things he heard from someone else or if he’s deliberately being dishonest with the text. Either way, he’s irresponsibly and thoughtlessly citing what the actual text says. Or maybe he’s just plain sloppy because that’s not what John wrote about who Nicodemus was.

Nicodemus wasn’t the “rich guy” the Bible talks about in this section of Scripture. That would be Joseph of Arimathea. Nicodemus is named in John 3:1 as a Pharisee, a ruler of the Jews. Matthew 27:57 identifies Joseph as the man who was “a rich man from Arimathea.”

But Mark has three chicks, Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of James, and Salome showing up the next day to spice up the body.”

Again, I wonder if Mr. Koolaid actually read the Bible for himself. Three chicks? Really? While the Bible doesn’t give the ages of the three women, Mary the mother of James can hardly be considered a chick in today’s vernacular.

But lets take a look at what the three texts say about the timing of the three women showing up to put spices on Jesus’ body:
1) Matthew 28:1 – “Now after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to look at the grave.”
2) Mark 16:1 – “When the Sabbath was over, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, bought spices, so that they might come and anoint Him.”
3) Luke 23:56b-24:1 – “And on the Sabbath they rested according to the commandment. But on the first day of the week, at early dawn, they came to the tomb bringing the spices which they had prepared.”

Joseph and Nicodemus prepared Jesus’ body and laid Him in His tomb on Friday, the day of Jesus’ death on the cross. Everyone and their uncle knows that the Sabbath is on Saturday. So it’s pretty obvious from the verses above that the three women approached Jesus’ tomb on what we now call Sunday, the first day of the week, not “the next day” as Mr. Koolaid states.

Just how much myrrh does one dead guy need?”

That’s a pretty callous and insensitive thing to say. I’ll just leave it at that.

But see, but I don’t necessarily see this as contradictory, especially if the women didn’t know that Jesus had already been spiced up. Oh wait, when you include a third Gospel. Luke 23 says that these women SAW where and how Jesus was buried. So I guess this one’s technically not impossible, it’s just really odd and unlikely.”

If he doesn’t “necessarily” see this as a contradiction, then why bring it up as a contradiction? If it’s “technically not impossible,” then why make a big deal out of it?

I can only imagine the only reason Mr. Koolaid brings this up is to question either the women’s motives or perhaps even their intelligence. It seems as if the latter is most likely. The Bible doesn’t say what their motives were, yet it’s clear that if any one motive needs to be presented, it would be one that displays their love for Jesus. But it saying that “it’s just really odd and unlikely” seems to call their intelligence into question. Now I’ll admit I’m a lousy mind reader, but I’d just like to know why Mr. Koolaid made that kind of a statement.

Not only is it not impossible and very likely, it’s actual historical fact that the three women brought spices to anoint Jesus’ body on Sunday. It’s historical fact that Joseph and Nicodemus prepared Jesus’ body to be laid in the tomb on Friday. You might not like it or understand it, but that’s the way the history played out.

Billy Quinlan

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Since both issues below relate to pretty much the same thing, they will be answered together.

Jehoiakin—8 or 18?

Video: “12 Contradictions in the Bible” by Holy Koolaid
The texts in question: 2 Chronicles 36:9 and 2 Kings 24:8

Below are Mr. Koolaid’s statements (in bold) followed by my response.

“2 Chronicles 36:9 says that the Old Testament Jewish king Jehoiachin was eight years old when he began to reign as king, while 2 Kings 24:8 says that Jehoiachin was eighteen years old when he began to reign. This seems minor but it’s a contradiction because it can’t be both.”

What was David’s Tally?

Video: “12 Contradictions in the Bible” by Holy Koolaid
The texts in question: 1 Chronicles 19:18 and 2 Samuel 10:18

“Or here’s another one 1 Chronicles 19 and 2 Samuel 10 tell the exact of how Hanun the king of the Amorites disgraces the Jewish king’s messengers and sends Arminian mercenaries to battle against David’s army who massacre them. But 2 Samuel says that David killed seven hundred of the Arameans and forty thousand horsemen, while 1 Chronicles says that he killed seven thousand charioteers and forty thousand foot soldiers.”

Chronicles was written around 535-450 BC, depending on the source material and internal evidence used by biblical scholars. Its source of information are the two books of Samuel and the two books of Kings (or quite possibly the sources that both Samuel and Kings used).

It’s quite possible that the copyist of 2 Samuel and 1 and 2 Kings made a clerical error. These only concern peripheral issues that do not affect the actual meaning of the text in any significant way, nor do they affect the teachings from the two texts at all. The internal evidence suggests that the Chronicles accounts are probably more reliable.

Since the numbers in Chronicles used Samuel and Kings as source material, that should point out that the copies they had were accurate at the time and that any errors in Samuel and Kings crept in later.

If you’re interested in further study on the issue, look up “Old Testament textual criticism.” Textual criticism is the science of figuring out what the original text (sometimes referred to as the autograph) contained.

KJV vs NIV

Video: “12 Contradictions in the Bible” by Holy Koolaid

“Oh, and uh, that’s according to the King James Version for all you King James purists out there; if you’re reading the NIV, the humans who wrote it ignored our oldest Hebrew manuscripts and edited out this discrepancy.”

The Old Testament Hebrew text used for the King James version is the Masoretic Text (MT). The NIV uses the Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia (BHS). In addition, both translation teams also used other sources to help them along. That would answer to Mr. Koolaid’s question of why the NIV and the KJV Old Testament read differently. So much for his claim to have studied the Bible for 20 years.

Billy Quinlan

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Ecclesiastes vs 2 Peter in the Narrative of Earth’s Durability

Video: “12 Contradictions in the Bible” by Holy Koolaid
The texts in question: Ecclesiastes 1:4 and 2 Peter 3:10

Below are Mr. Koolaid’s statements (in bold) followed by my response.

“But what about Ecclesiastes 1:4, “A generation goes and a generation comes but the earth remains forever?” But will it? Because 2 Peter 3:10 says that the earth will be burned up. In this case the genre of the book is important. Ecclesiastes is a poetic book of wisdom and pithy sayings, packed with analogies and metaphors. This is a poetic way of contrasting the earth a human lifespan. You’re not meant to take every figure of speech literally. I mean, he anthropomorphizes the sun, for God’s sake.”

While I’m happy for Mr. Koolaid finding some sort of answer, it’s not even close. No soup for you, Mr. Koolaid. The two texts are referring to two different things that should both be taken literally within their own genre.

Solomon wrote Ecclesiastes as a biography, of sorts, to show how for most of his life he squandered God’s blessings to chase after personal pleasure instead. He wrote to future generations to warn them not to make the same disastrous error of substituting pleasure for obedience to God. In 1:4 he was comparing permanence with impermanence; how an endless cycle of work and activity repeats itself continuously and how that does not bring security or meaning to man’s experience in a world that is constantly moving on.

Peter was writing of eschatological events. He was encouraging his readers not to lose hope in the face of antagonistic mockers who were deriding them (or will deride them) over the fact that Jesus had not returned yet. He was reminding them that both Old Testament and New Testament history and prophecy are reliable, and that the history of God’s judgment in the past sets the stage for the reliability of future prophecy that is yet to be fulfilled. In 2 Peter 2:10-11, Peter was reminding his fellow believers how the judgment of God will come swiftly and unexpectedly. Therefore, they should live godly lives continually so that that judgment will not fall upon them without warning.

They are two different genres and two different topics that have no direct relation to each other, thus there’s no contradiction here that needs to be resolved.

Billy Quinlan

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Matthew vs Acts in the narrative of Judas’ Hanging

Video: “12 Contradictions in the Bible” by Holy Koolaid
The texts in question: Matthew 27:3-10 and Acts 1:16-19

Below are Mr. Koolaid’s statements (in bold) followed by my response.

“Now one of the most famous stories about Jesus is how His disciple Judas betrays Him with a kiss. But what happened to Judas afterward depends on which part of the Bible you read.”

It’s amazing how one’s beliefs plays into comprehending the Bible. The antagonist is already looking for problems in the texts before he even touches a Bible. When he comes across what he thinks is a contradiction he simply stops reading, slams the cover shut, and walks away. The believer is first looking to see what the verse(s)are teaching him or her. When he eventually comes upon a problem where two separate texts have different information, he first seeks to reconcile the texts with each other, or seeks after other related scriptures, or even looking to see how it fits in with the rest of the book, chapter, section, or even the Bible as a whole. When the texts seem contradictory the first thing he seeks to do is to see if the two texts can be reconciled.

In the Gospel of Matthew, Judas storms back to the chief priests and returns the money that he was paid to betray Jesus by throwing it into the temple. But according to Acts, which was written by the same author who wrote the Gospel of Luke, Judas didn’t return the money at all.”

This is a gross misrepresentation of what Luke wrote in Acts. “Now this man acquired a field with the price of his wickedness…” (verse 18) is a far cry from saying “Judas didn’t return the money at all.” In no way did Luke even imply this in his text. It’s simply a thought that Mr. Koolaid pulled out of thin air to try to make his argument sound reasonable.

Luke was right. As Matthew’s gospel points out, Judas’ 30 pieces of silver profited him with nothing more than a graveyard (Matthew 27:7). That’s the point Luke is making. It’s something that is often referred to as an irony of fate, where an intended action results in an unintended result.

In Acts, Judas goes land shopping and buys a field with the money, while in Matthew the priests buy the field with the money.”

Could someone pretty please show me the verse where Luke writes that Judas went land shopping? How about the verse where Luke specifically wrote that Judas literally “buys a field?” It’s hard to find an atheist who treats the texts fairly and Mr. Koolaid is no exception.

Yes, the word acquire can mean to obtain something through a monetary purchase. It can also mean to obtain something through indirect means, as the case is here. It’s pretty obvious in Matthew’s text that Judas was “seized with remorse” because he had betrayed Jesus (Matthew 27:3) and tried to return the money in an effort to absolve himself of guilt. If Judas had kept the money he could have spent it on whatever he wanted. At least the priests had a minuscule amount of integrity to realize the money didn’t belong to them and that returning the money to the treasury would be wrong. So after Judas threw the money into the temple, rather than returning the money to the treasury (where it came from) or pocketing it among themselves, the priests spent Judas’ money and purchased the field for the purpose of turning it into a graveyard. Hence Luke’s remark “Now this man acquired a field with the price of his wickedness…” (italics mine) is very astute in realizing the result of the final outcome concerning Judas’ blood money. Luke’s statement that the field was called “Hakeldama, that is, Field of Blood” is in total harmony with what Matthew wrote in 27:6 of his Gospel, where even the chief priests recognized the money was the “price of blood.”

In Matthew Judas feels so guilty for betraying Jesus that he goes and hangs himself but in Acts he’s strutting through his new field when he trips, falls and his intestines spill out.”

I don’t know what translation Mr. Koolaid uses but my text says “…falling headlong, he burst open in the middle and all his intestines gushed out” (Acts 1:18). Please show me your translation that says Judas was “strutting through his new field when he trips [and] falls…” I know I said above that it’s “hard to find an atheist who treats the texts fairly and Mr. Koolaid is no exception,” but this remark is truly ridiculous. There’s just simply no excuse for such unfair and dishonest treatment of the text.

The question is can the two texts be reconciled? The answer is yes; this information supplements, but by no means contradicts, what is said in Matthew 27:5 (“Then he went away and hanged himself.”) While the text doesn’t specifically state why Judas’ intestines spilled out, there can be several possible reasons.

First is that by the time his body was found it was still hanging and it had decomposed to the point where the pressure created by the gasses had forced fluids to come out of his tissues and into the body cavities. The body becomes bloated as a result and the skin stretches out like an overinflated balloon and eventually the stomach bursts open. This is not likely to be what happened though.

The second is that his body was no longer hanging when it was discovered, but had fallen to the ground due to the neck and throat decomposing enough so that the rope cut through it. His stomach then split open on impact with the ground. This is a stronger possibility but doesn’t quite seem to fit in with the text that states that Judas fell headlong and not that his head had separated from his body.

The third is that either the rope was improperly tied, or it had snapped, or the branch broke and he fell head first while his belly landed on a sharp object, such as a rock, causing his stomach to rip open and his intestines had gushed out. This reason is most likely since Luke says he fell headlong, or head first. This would be an agonizing way to die.

Billy Quinlan

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John vs Mark in the narrative of Andrew’s calling

Video: “12 Contradictions in the Bible” by Holy Koolaid
The texts in question are Mark 1:14-20 and John 1:35-42.

Below are Mr. Koolaid’s statements (in bold) followed by my response.

“Now, there’s not much information in the Gospels on Jesus between His childhood and His ministry, but as an adult before He started preaching and performing miracles, he needed to build a following.”

That’s really not an unfair take for an atheist but it does need to be developed further. He didn’t need to build a following so much as He needed to train and prepare men for His ministry that would follow after His atoning death, resurrection, and ascension to heaven. The 12 disciples that He specifically called to Himself would go on to become Apostles and fulfill that ministry (with the exception of Judas, of course).

So at the start of his ministry each Gospel has Jesus gathering disciples, starting with Andrew.”

Not quite. Jesus started calling His 12 disciples by first calling Philip. More on that below.

In John chapter one a local preacher John the Baptist is chilling with this guy named Andrew.”

Could someone please point out to me which scripture states that “John the Baptist was chilling with this guy named Andrew?” I’d appreciate it. I’m pretty sure John was rather quite busy baptizing people and dealing with the religious folks, such as the priests and Levites (John 1:19), and the Pharisees (1:24) who challenged his authority to do what he was sent to do, which is to prepare men and women for the immanent ministry of the Messiah. Between those times he was busy preaching a necessity for folks to be prepared to meet Jesus the Messiah when He began His ministry.

John looks up, sees Jesus, and shouts out “Behold the Lamb of God.” On hearing this, Andrew leaves John and becomes Jesus’ disciple.”

John 1:37-39 states that Andrew followed Jesus around after he heard John the Baptist point to the Messiah’s presence as He was walking near where John the Baptist was working (1:35). Andrew was not following Jesus in the sense of being a disciple (yet) but in the sense of walking in His vicinity (“Jesus turned and saw them following… One of the two who heard John speak and followed Him was Andrew…” verses 38 and 40).

In fact, the first disciple chronologically and officially called was Philip in verse 1:43 of John’s gospel when Jesus specifically called him by telling him to “follow Me.” This occurred the day after two disciples of John the Baptist, one of whom was Andrew, started following Jesus around. Jesus had not yet officially called Andrew to follow Him.

But in Mark chapter one John isn’t even there and Jesus calls Andrew directly.”

Since Mark doesn’t record every single thing Jesus said or did in His three year ministry it should be pretty obvious there are gaps of time in his Gospel (and the same for the other three Gospels as well). There is an obvious gap of time between Jesus’ baptism (in vv. 9-11) and His time in the wilderness (vv. 12-13), and when Jesus specifically calls Andrew and Peter to “follow Me’ (vv. 16-18). More on this below.

In the first account, John the Baptist is still a free man but Mark specifically says that Jesus called Andrew after John the Baptist had been arrested by Herod and was about to be executed. In John’s account this happened near the Jordan River the day before Jesus went north to Galilee but in Mark’s account Jesus calls Andrew on the shores of Galilee and after Andrew decides to follow Jesus. In John’s account he leaves to find his brother Simon Peter to tell him about Jesus but in Mark’s account Andrew’s literally sitting in a boat with his brother Simon Peter and Jesus calls both of them simultaneously.”

I can understand that knowing the chronology of New Testament history is difficult for most people, especially atheists, who don’t know where to find the necessary tools to help them along or even where to look for them. The best way to understand the New Testament chronology is to pick up a chronological New Testament Bible, such as One Perfect Life (John MacArthur) or The Four In One Gospel of Jesus (Nikola Dimitrov).

Jesus called His next four disciples (after He had already called Philip) after He was rejected in Nazareth some time later. While MacArthur and Dimitrov don’t follow the same exact chronologies, they both place the calling of Andrew (along with Peter, James, and John) in or near Capernaum at the Sea of Galilee after Jesus left Nazareth. This happened at least a few weeks, and possibly more, after Andrew started following Jesus around as detailed in John 1:35-42.

Also, please pay close attention to the first three verses in this particular section in John’s Gospel: “Again the next day John was standing with two of his disciples, and he looked at Jesus as He walked, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God!” The two disciples heard him speak, and they followed Jesus” (vv. 35-37). The two disciples, of which Andrew was one of them, are specifically mentioned as being disciples of John the Baptist, not Jesus.

Since the so-called contradiction is specifically about Andrew’s calling to be a special disciple of Jesus, and not the death of John the Baptist, I’ll ignore the comments about John. I always prefer to settle one issue at a time and the way to do that is to avoid tangential arguments that distract from the issue at hand. But if you would like to see how the particular chronology of John the Baptist transpired, feel free to consult one or both of the chronological New Testament books noted above. And there are plenty more if you want to get a different version.

For those of you who are interested in a general chronology from Jesus’ baptism to Andrew’s calling:
Jesus is baptized – Matt 3:13-17; Mark 1:9-11; Luke 3:21-22
Jesus is tempted in the wilderness – Matt 4:1-11; Mark 1:12-13; Luke 4:1-13
John the Baptist testifies about Jesus – John 1:15-34
Andrew and Peter meet Jesus – John 1:35-42
Jesus is preparing to leave for Galilee – John 1:43
Philip is called to follow Him and Nathanael meets Jesus – John 1:43-51
Jesus at the wedding in Cana of Galilee – John 2:1-12
Jesus’ first cleansing of the Temple during Passover – John 2:13-25
Jesus meets with Nicodemus – John 3:1-21
Jesus’ ministry supersedes John the Baptist’s – John 3:22-36
John the Baptist put in custody – Matthew 4:12; Mark 1:14
Jesus meets the Samaritan woman near Sychar – John 4:1-30
Jesus evangelizes the village of Sychar – John 4:39-42
Jesus heals a nobleman’s son – John 4:43-54
Jesus’ rejection at Nazareth – Luke 4:14-30
Jesus calls Peter, Andrew, James, and John to follow Him – Matt 4:18-22; Mark 1:16-20

Billy Quinlan

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Matthew vs Luke — Jesus’ flight to Egypt

Video: “12 Contradictions in the Bible” by Holy Koolaid
The texts in question are Matthew 2:1-23 and Luke 2:21-40.

Part Two: Lexical Problems and Historical Details

Below are Mr. Koolaid’s statements (in bold) followed by my response.

And this is likely significantly after Jesus’ birth because the author of Matthew uses the Greek word paidion [παιδίον] to describe Jesus as a young boy when the wise men arrived rather than the Greek word brephos [βρέφος], or infant, which would have been used if he had just been born.”

Okay, lets take a look at that… In Luke 2:16 (in the English text) the word “baby” (βρέφος) is used and in the very next verse (2:17) the English word “child” (παιδίον) is used. Perhaps he’s trying to dazzle everyone and set himself up to look like he’s adequately familiar with Koine Greek and yet he failed to pay any attention to the fact that Luke used the two words in two consecutive verses that have no indication of any passage of time.

But let’s look a few verses down and find out what we see. In Luke 2:27 when Jesus was around 40 days old, the author describes Jesus as a child (παιδίον) also. I repeat, at 40 days old; even in modern parlance we would consider a 40 day old child to still be a baby.

Now, I don’t know about the cultural use of the two words in the first century, to be honest. While I do know a little bit about Koine Greek, what little I do know is insufficient to make a call about how those two words were used in the time of the Gospels. And yet what little I do know tells me that Mr. Koolaid probably doesn’t know much more about the use of those two Koine Greek words than your average bear, especially when I consider Luke’s use of those two Greek words in the three verses noted above, and especially the two consecutive verses.

“Joseph lives in Nazareth. The only reason they go to Bethlehem is some weird census. … this still directly contradicts Luke’s claim that he was born during during the census of governor Quirinus because Quirinus didn’t become governor until 6 [AD], ten years after Herod’s death.”

First and foremost, what Luke’s Gospel sates in Luke 2:1-2 is that “a decree went out from Caesar Augustus, that a census be taken of all the inhabited earth. This was the first census taken while Quirinius was governor of Syria” (italics mine for emphasis). Mr. Koolaid, intentionally misleads the listener to think the census was the brainchild of Quirinus when it wasn’t. It was Caesar Augustus who ordered the census be taken.

Secondly, it wasn’t just Joseph and Mary who returned to the cities, towns, and villages of their ancestry. All Israel did, as Luke 2:3 states: “And everyone was on his way to register for the census, each to his own city.” I mention that because there seems to be a suggestion, if not an outright assertion, in Mr. Koolaid’s narrative that Joseph’s and Mary’s travels are at least a bit odd (“the only reason”). In case you’re interested, the reason Joseph and Mary return to Bethlehem for the census is because it is the birthplace of King David (“the city of David” in Luke2:11), their common ancestor who was from the tribe of Judah and was also born there. You’re welcome.

As for when Quirinus was governor of Syria, the dates depend on the ancient sources—and there are many—and they point to different dates. One thing needs to be made clear. Most people who hear about such dates tend to think with a modern-day calendar in mind, such as the Gregorian calendar. When they hear dates like “6 AD” as Mr. Koolaid stated, they tend to think the sources are mentioning specific calendar dates in the extra-biblical historic accounts or archaeological finds. That’s not true. The dating system of the time used mentions of circumstances surrounding an event such as men who held a political office at the time, the year of the Caesar’s reign, and astronomical events (comets, eclipses, etc.).

A reading of Tertullian’s account (Against Marcion), makes it quite possible that Quirinius may have served in Syria twice, from 7 to 4 BC and again from 2 BC to 1 AD. Most historians have noted Luke’s accuracy describing other historical people and events, so that’s not out of the question. After all, Luke was no Oakie from Muskogee—he was a physician by profession. In case you’re wondering who my source is for the afore mentioned information, it is none other than Jack Finegan’s Handbook of Biblical Chronology, and that’s Finegan’s conclusion, based on his scholarship. Yep, Mr. Koolaid liked the book so much that I decided to order it and check it out. Lots of good stuff in there if you’re interested. More on this book and Mr. Koolaid’s accusation towards the author will follow.

As for the census being labeled by Mr. Koolaid as “weird,” Caesar Augustus was well known to order them to be held at throughout his reign and across various districts. There is plenty of testimony from ancient sources that they were held every five years or so. Some were for the purpose of taxation and others were for other matters, such as for the purpose of compiling information of the residents’ names, occupations, and income sources for future use (which is similar to the US census held every ten years). The latter were generally called registrations or enrollments while the former were usually called a census. Some English translations render the Greek word as a census and others translate it as a registration. The Greek word used in Luke 2:1 is ἀπογράφω in its lexical form as a verb (pronounced apographo), which means to register or enroll. It was most likely not for the purpose of collecting taxes but for recording information, since there is no mention of Joseph paying taxes.

Luke 2:2 states that “this was the first census taken while Quirinius was governor of Syria” and that points to the historical certainty that more than one census was taken while Quirinus was governor of Syria.

“The census of Luke is in agreement with Roman history,” states Gerard Gertoux in a scholarly paper posted on academia.edu, Dating the two Censuses of P. Sulpicius Quirinius, and can be read or downloaded from that site. It took place around 2 BC and was an “Inventory of the world performed by Augustus” and was the “Census (registration) mentioned by Luke 2:1,” according to the source named by Gertoux as Titulus Venetus (Res Gestae §15); (Apology I:34; 46). This is not the same census that was known to be conducted in 6 AD. That might very well be the reason why Mr. Koolaid is confused. In another of his works published on the same web site, Mr. Gertoux, in his scholarly paper Herod the Great and Jesus: Chronological, Historical and Archaeological Evidence, states in his abstract, “Dating the census of P. Sulpicius Quirinius According to Luke 2:1: Now at this time Caesar Augustus issued a decree for a census of the whole world to be taken. This census — the first — took place while Quirinius was governor of Syria. The historian Paul Orosius precisely dated the census of Augustus in the year 752 of Rome (Histories against the pagans VI:22:1; VII:3:4) or in 2 BCE. According to Josephus: Quirinius had then liquidated the estate of Archelaus; and by this time the registrations of property that took place in the 37th year after Caesar’s defeat of Antony [in 6 CE] at Actium were complete (Jewish Antiquities XVIII:1-4, 26). The first registration under Herod the Great, as the census of Apamea, was made to know the number of citizens and it is not to be confused with the one implemented in Judea by Quirinius when he came to ensure the liquidation of property of Herod Archelaus after his disgrace, and of which Josephus says it was followed by an evaluation of property. This two-step operation did not have the same nature, nor the same goal, or the same geographical scope as the previous one. It was conducted according to the principles of the Roman capitation and not according to Hebrew customs, and only covered the sole Judea, not Galilee. General censuses were performed every 5 years (= 1 lustre) as can be deduced from those reported by Cassius Dio. The census prior to the one of 4 CE, confined to Italy (Cassius Dio LV:13), was performed in 2 BCE.”

“Oh and, uh, Herod died in 4 [AD]…”

Lets first look at the assertion made by Mr. Koolaid concerning Jack Finegan’s book (below) and then we’ll look at the year of Herod’s death. Don’t worry, I won’t let you down.

“In his Handbook of Biblical Chronology, Bible scholar Jack Finegan tried to nudge the date of Herod’s death forward by showing that some copies of the ancient historian Josephus’ book, The Antiquities of the Jews, place Herod’s death in the 22nd year of the emperor Tiberius rather than the 20th…”

The details about Herod’s death in this book takes up ten pages and includes multiple sources, citations, and archaeological evidences. If you never fact-checked Koolaid’s source you’d probably think that Finegan cited Josephus exclusively when presenting his case.

Allow me to compare what Mr. Koolaid asserted with the actual text of Finegan’s book. In the book Handbook of Biblical Chronology, Finegan writes, “As cited just above (§516), the currently known text of Josephus’s Ant. 18.106 states that Philip died in the twentieth year of Tiberius … after ruling for thirty-seven years. This points to Phillip’s accession at the death Herod in 4 BC (4 years BC + 33 years AD = 37 years). But Filmer suspected that a figure had dropped out and that the text should probably read the twenty-second, rather than the twentieth, year of Tiberius (AD 35/36). Barnes rejected this reading as “comparatively ill-attested,” … In fact, however, already in the nineteenth century Florian Riess reported that the Franciscan monk Molkenbuhr claimed to have seen a 1517 Parisian copy of Josephus and an 1841 Venetian copy in each of which the text read “the twenty-second year of Tiberius.” The antiquity of this reading has now been abundantly confirmed. In 1955 David W. Beyer reported … his personal examination … of forty-six editions of Josephus’s Antiquities published before 1700 among which twenty-seven texts, all but three published before 1544, read “twenty-second year of Tiberius,” while not a single edition published prior to 1544 read “twentieth year of Tiberius.” … Accordingly, if the birth of Jesus was two years or less before the death of Herod in 1 BC, the date of the birth was in 3 or 2 BC, presumably precisely in the period 3/2 BC so consistently, attested by the most credible early church fathers. Furthermore, we have seen evidence for a time of Jesus’ birth in the midwinter (Beckwith, our §473), therefore mid-winter in 3/2 BC appears the likely date of the birth of Jesus.”

As for the early dates vs the later dates of Antiquities and why the earlier copies are deemed more accurate, I would direct you to study what is known as textual criticism. It’s the science of poring through multiple manuscripts to ascertain what was written in the original text. While it’s not an easy thing to learn, it’s easy enough to be able to get a decent overview of it and why it is a necessary field.

Compare what Finegan wrote with Mr. Koolaid’s statement: “Jack Finegan tried to nudge the date of Herod’s death forward by showing that some copies of the ancient historian Josephus’ book, The Antiquities of the Jews, place Herod’s death in the 22nd year of the emperor Tiberius rather than the 20th…” and look me in the eye and tell me Mr. Koolaid didn’t completely and totally misrepresent what Mr. Finegan wrote.

“Oh and, uh, Herod died in 4 [AD]…” (reprise)

In the scholarly paper noted above, Herod the Great and Jesus: Chronological, Historical and Archaeological Evidence, Gertoux writes in his abstract, “The traditional date of 4 BCE for the death of Herod the Great, as set forth by E. Schürer (1896), has been accepted by historians for many years without notable controversy. However, according to the texts of Luke and Matthew, Herod died shortly after the birth of Jesus (Lk 1:5, 30-31; Mt 2:1-23), which can be fixed in 2 BCE (Lk 2:1-2; 3:1). Consequently, there is apparently a major chronological contradiction but in fact Josephus gives a dozen synchronisms that enable us to date the 37 years of Herod’s reign from 39 to 2 BCE and his death on 26 January 1 BCE just after a total lunar eclipse (9 January 1 BCE) prior to the Passover (Jewish Antiquities XVII:166-167, 191, 213). Two important events confirm the dating of Herod’s death: the ‘census of Quirinius’ in Syria (Titulus Venetus) which was a part of the ‘Inventory of the world’ ordered by Augustus when he became ‘Father of the Country’ in 2 BCE and the ‘war of Varus’ (Against Apion I:34) after Herod’s death conducted under the auspices of Caius Caesar (Jewish War II:68-70), the imperial legate of the East, and dated during the year of his consulship in 1 CE (Cassius Dio LV:10:17-18; LV:10a:4).”

Eusebius writes in his book, The History of the Church (written in 324 AD), a partial history of Herod in chapter 5 and he agrees with the Gospel testimony that Herod was alive at the time of Jesus’ birth and that he actually did the things that Matthew wrote about. His testimony comes at a far earlier date than the works of Emil Schürer in 1896 AD and is closer in history to the actual events. There are no claims that I’m aware of that date Herod’s death to the Gregorian calendar date of 4 BC sooner than Schürer’s work in 1896 AD. We know that Eusebius had access to the Theological Library of Caesarea which included many documents, letters, and extracts from earlier Christian writings. Those documents would even be closer to the eyewitness accounts than the sources that Schürer had. And eyewitness accounts are very important. We use them as evidence in a court of law and because we know how important eyewitness accounts are to establish guilt and innocence in a courtroom, we should also realize how important they are to actual historical accounts as well.

Billy Quinlan

Posts

Matthew vs Luke — Jesus’ flight to Egypt

Video: “12 Contradictions in the Bible” by Holy Koolaid
The texts in question are Matthew 2:1-23 and Luke 2:21-40.

Part One: The Biblical Narratives

Below are Mr. Koolaid’s statements (in bold) followed by my response.

“Let’s stick to the Gospel accounts of Jesus’ life because they’re all in the New Testament. They’re all in the same genre: narrative accounts relaying a series of events. They’re all talking about the same people and events and the time, place, and contexts are the same.”

They’re all talking about the same people and events and the time, place, and contexts are the same. He will shortly contradict himself with his subsequent statement (below). Not all the gospels, even the synoptic Gospels, mention the same people and events. But since both Christians and atheists already know that, we’ll move on.

In addition to the contents, the context of each Gospel can vary according to the overall message each author is trying to convey and who his intended audience is. A good study Bible can help you see the overall context of each author’s Gospel and the author’s intended audience, among other things. My two favorites are the MacArthur Study Bible (dispensationalism) and the Reformation Study Bible (covenant theology).

“No mention of Herod’s massacre [in Luke]”

Mr. Koolaid doesn’t ask the obvious question: why doesn’t Luke mention the flight to Egypt that is in Matthew’s Gospel? The short and simple answer to this “contradiction” is that Matthew 2:1-23 fits into a gap of time that exists in Luke’s Gospel, and this gap would take place between verses 38 and 39. There are a few chronological New Testament works available. One is by John MacArthur entitled One Perfect Life and the other is by Nikola Dimitrov entitled The Four In One Gospel of Jesus. Both are available on Amazon as of the date of publication of this post. MacArthur places Matthew’s narrative between Luke 2 verses 38 and 39; and Dimitrov between verses 39 and 40 (close enough). So then, this “short and simple answer” isn’t far fetched at all, but it should be simple enough to understand and comprehend.

Moreover, in the MacArthur Study Bible John MacArthur explains, “The theme of early rejection, so prominent in Matthew, was not where Luke focused his attention when composing his Gospel. In Matthew’s Gospel, the theme of rejection is constantly portrayed more than any of the other Gospels and is a constant theme. In no other Gospel is the theme of rejection portrayed as vividly, in part, to point back to Old Testament scriptures about the Messiah being rejected by His own people.” And a simple reading of Luke’s narrative (vv. 25-38) reveals that Luke is pointing more to an acceptance of Jesus’ Messiahship by two people who recognized that Jesus is the Messiah that was to come.

“Only two of the four canonical Gospels [Matthew and Luke] even tell the story of Jesus’ birth and these two accounts are irreconcilably different.”

Well, there goes the proclamation that “they’re all talking about the same people and events…and the context are the same.”

As to why there is no detailed genealogy in Mark and John, Mark emphasizes Jesus as the Father’s servant and genealogies are not recorded for servants. And there’s no detailed genealogy recorded in John because of John’s emphasis that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.

Actually, the two accounts fit together very well. The timeline for Jesus’ family’s escape to Egypt (Matthew 2:16-23) fits in nicely immediately after Luke 2:38, as mentioned above.

“…in Matthew after Jesus’s birth king Herod hears about baby Jesus described as the future King of the Jews, he feels threatened and has every baby under the age of two slaughtered.”

Ackshually, Matthew says Herod “slew all the male children who were in Bethlehem and all its vicinity, from two years old and under…” (Matthew 2:16). While this may seem a minor detail to some, it would be nice if he could have been more accurate with the text and represent it properly. Sometimes minor deviations from the accurate details as it is written in the text can make mountains out of mole hills. I can understand that someone can suggest he was probably winging it and trying to paraphrase Matthew’s narrative but that’s really no excuse to take liberties with the text. As we will see below, Mr. Koolaid took a lot of bigger liberties with the texts and this just adds to his misrepresentation of the texts.

While some Christians do seem to agree that Herod was probably “hedging his bets,” or even that he was engaging in overkill (no pun intended), that’s not in the text—but is speculation. Yes, Herod was historically known to be very cruel, but it’s just not in the text that Herod accurately ascertained the date of Jesus’ birth or that he was playing it “safe” when he gave orders to kill male children aged two and under.

“[In Luke’s Gospel,] Jesus’ parents peacefully stick around Bethlehem until it’s time for the baby’s ritual purification which was 33 days after His birth according to the Jewish law in Leviticus 12.”

Perhaps he read verse 21 in Luke’s Gospel and somehow missed verse 22 (for some reason) and associated Jesus’ circumcision with the purification ritual required of the mother. The circumcision required for males were to take place 8 days after birth (Genesis 17:10-14), not 33 days. That indicates a gap in time of eight days between verses 21 and 22. You’ll see gaps in time in the chronology in all the Gospels. Just like there’s a gap in time between verses 38 and 39.

Here, Mr. Koolaid refers to Leviticus 12:4-5 and he flashes the two verses quickly before anyone has time to read it. Maybe some of you stopped the video and read it. You may have noted that the scripture quoted is for the woman who gives birth, not the baby. Okay, so some of you might say it’s no big deal; just a minor slip-up. It’s not, because he explicitly stated that the ritual had to do with Jesus’ ritual purification. Seriously, I wonder if he actually pays attention to what he’s reading. I also wonder if he has any intention at all to represent the scriptures accurately. Why is he being so sloppy?

Moreover, the woman’s purification ritual took place after forty days, not thirty-three, after giving birth. For seven days after giving birth she is unclean and for thirty-three days after that she was to “remain in the blood of her purification for thirty-three days.” Then she is to go to the temple and offer up a sacrifice so she could be “cleansed from her blood,” or declared clean. You can read about it in Leviticus 12:2-8. Just wanted to make sure I represent the text accurately for you. You’re welcome.

“They do that [performing Mary’s ritual purification] in Jerusalem where Herod was ruling. And while there a righteous old man and a prophetess approach baby Jesus in broad daylight in a crowded temple and start shouting to everyone who will listen that this is the coming Messiah … and yet Herod does nothing and Jesus’ family immediately and uneventfully about a month after His birth head back to their home in Nazareth.”

A righteous old man. There is no age noted in Luke’s text for Simeon, the man named in Luke’s Gospel (v. 25). It is impossible to know how old he was from reading the text, aside from speculation. There is, admittedly, a verse that easily leads to speculation because of the apparent mention of death (“depart in peace,”) in verse 29, and it shows us that we need to read the texts carefully to avoid unnecessary speculations because the age of Simeon is unspecified in the text. But we all know well enough not to add or subtract from the text, so we always strive to avoid such speculation by not isolating one verse from its surrounding context. After all, we don’t like it when someone puts words in our mouth that we didn’t say, right?

In broad daylight in a crowded temple and start shouting. I honestly wonder what in the world made him say that. That’s definitely not in the text by any stretch of the imagination. Maybe he just doesn’t care about how sloppy he is in “paraphrasing” what the scripture says and has absolutely no desire to represent the text honestly and accurately. Or perhaps he knows none of his followers will bother to fact check him to see if those words are in the text. It’s obvious from the above quote (“and yet Herod does nothing”) he’s trying to suggest strongly through overt embellishment that Herod was already looking for Jesus at that time— and that simply is not in Luke’s text, nor is it even implied.

And yet Herod does nothing and Jesus’ family immediately and uneventfully about a month after His birth head back to their home in Nazareth. Luke’s statement that “when they they had performed everything” (2:29) does not preclude the family’s flight to Egypt. The above events in the temple (2:22-38) took place close to 40 or 41 days after Jesus’ birth, as already shown above.

Matthew’s Gospel makes it clear the magi had come to Jerusalem (not Bethlehem, by the way) seeking Jesus and inquiring about the location of His birth (Matthew 2:1-3). Herod learned about this and then inquired the chief priests and scribes (who were the experts in Old Testament scriptures) about the location where the Messiah was to be born and found out it was in nearby Bethlehem (vv. 4-6). But does the text say Herod knew that Jesus was already born? No, not at this point. That’s why Herod questioned the magi (verse7) while they were still in Jerusalem; to find out when an extraordinary sign (the star) was first seen by the magi—so he could try to interpret the best he could to try to figure out a birth date. The time the extraordinary phenomena appeared in the east would give him a clue (vv. 7-8). So in verse 8 we see Herod asking the magi to get back to him about precise details. How much time elapsed between verse 8 and verse 11? Depends on if they were walking, riding camels, or driving a Honda Accord. And don’t forget that they most likely had servants and other men with them for protection since travel at that time was hazardous for a small group to travel alone and face the possibility of running into bands of robbers. Whether that would slow things down or not, I don’t know, but for the heck of it, let’s say it doesn’t. So then, how long does it take to travel from Jerusalem to Bethlehem in those days? Well, according to Google maps, if you’re driving a car, it takes 22 minutes (if you take the shortest route via Hebron), and about 2 hours if you’re walking on modern roadways. We don’t know what the roads were like then or how long it would take to walk those roads but I’ll be generous and say not much longer than a day. But there’s one other thing to take into consideration, and that is how much time elapsed between Jesus’ birth, the magi arriving in Bethlehem and subsequently failing to report back to Herod, and Herod finally figuring out the magi pulled a fast one on him. And we have no idea how long Herod waited to get an answer back from the magi because the text doesn’t specify. The only clue we have is in verse 16, which says Herod got a bit upset and decided to order the slaughter of male infants aged two and under. And two years are a far cry from Luke’s narrative about Jesus’ circumcision, Mary’s performance of ritual purification, and Jesus being presented in the temple (Luke 2:23; Exodus 13:2, 12; 18:15) all around 40+ days or so after His birth. So it’s not very likely Herod realized he was bamboozled that soon according to the timeline of Luke’s Gospel, and most importantly because Luke makes no mention of it.

Luke’s Gospel does not say that Jesus’ family “immediately and uneventfully about a month after His birth” left for Nazareth. That’s adding to the text. Perhaps I should have mentioned earlier that there are two ways to read and understand the text: eisegesis and exegesis. If you don’t know what the two words mean, google them.

It then becomes very obvious that the two authors didn’t write contradictory events. Rather, what they separately and independently wrote to two different audiences (Jewish/Gentile) for separate purposes work together and gives us the opportunity to put together a more complete timeline from what is written in the two Gospels.

“But in Matthew, Joseph and Mary are residents of Bethlehem. … There’s no mention of a manger either, because why would you give birth in a barn when you have a local home. After Jesus is born, magi from the east set out on a journey from a foreign country to meet him and he’s still with his family from Bethlehem when they arrive, living in a local house.”

I don’t know how he got that from the following text: “Now when Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judea in the days of Herod the king…” (Matthew 2:1a). True, verse 11 says the magi saw the Child after coming into “the house” but since there’s nothing inherent in the text that indicates ownership or residence, the question should be “who’s house?” and since that information is lacking we shouldn’t be taking those kinds of liberties with the text. Taking liberties with the text might be acceptable when making movies from novels but it doesn’t work when trying to sensationalize what one thinks is a contradiction in the Biblical texts. It just makes you look wacky when someone actually looks up the text to fact check your narrative. Matthew’s text says nothing about Bethlehem being their hometown nor about living in a local home or house as a resident of that town. Luke’s text, by the way, makes crystal it clear that Joseph and Mary resided in Nazareth before and after Jesus’ birth.